For Basel modellers, a common problem is a relatively short period of data. In most firms, they might not even able to get up to 5 years worth of data. Hence, the PD models would normally reflecting a Point in time (PIT) estimate or a Short run cycle (SRC) estimate.
Now, its nothing wrong having a PIT estimate. It is really up to the Bank’s senior management to decide if they want: –> You can read more here
6 comments
17 March, 2007 at 01:49
bruce
hmm, not quite agreeing with your article I’m afraid.
Point in time (PIT) and Through the Cycle (TTC) should refer to a rating system. This is the whole concept that a bank uses to set its regulatory capital. In principle, a PIT system will be procyclical with the economy (ie estimate higher levels of capital in the bad times) and a TTC system will estimate constant levels of capital during the economic cycle. In simple terms a TTC system is better as there is concerns that a PIT system could cause banks to fuel an economic downturn (increased capital requirement leading to reduced lending activity). However, for a rating system to be effective and compliant it must react to changes in a business and the level of risk it is taking. For a TTC system it is very difficult to separate out the effects in changes in the economy and non-cyclical changes in risk (ie due to lending rules or borrower behavioural changes).
In either case, the capital calculated by the rating system must use a long run average (LRA) PD. As you say, there aren’t any banks which have LRA PDs for their retail business particularly when divided into their current risk grades (using their current scorecards). To estimate the LRA PD using a short PD history, an excepted technique is to apply a scalar to the short run of data. This is usually through external data and longer run portfolio level internal data. The ongoing monitoring of this adjustment is key to IRB compliance.
17 March, 2007 at 11:00
Riskopedia
Did some research online and found an excellent article about the difference betwee PIT and TTC rating system
Stability of a “through-the-cyle” rating system during a financial crisis-http://www.bis.org/fsi/awp2006.pdf
So, Bruce, just wondering, if firm applied a scorecard, which was built based on PIT information (which is in most cases). Let say the scorecard has implemented for 5 years. The modeller was able to obtain 5 years worth of scoring data (still PIT score). The score was acted as an input to the PD model, put accounts/customers into homogeneous pool, and then come up with a short run average PD based on the 5 years. Would this be PIT rating or TTC rating? (I probably think this would still be a PIT rating)
But then, because the firm wanted to achieve a long-run-average, it used different various method, such as econometric model, to estimate what would the PIT PD be during the cyclical environment. Then a scalar would be applied to obtain a LRA PIT? PD. Hence, from your view, is this different from a LRA TTC rating estimate?
20 March, 2007 at 00:03
bruce
I have to say the basel 2 jargon everyone is facing is pretty confusing. I fell into the same misunderstanding and had to edit a very large pile of documents to be consistent with the regulators view.
So, for PDs to be compliant for calculating capital, they must be a true long run average by ratings grade. If this is not available (over a economic cycle, say 15-25 yrs) then it is acceptable to estimate this using a shorter run of data and a scalar adjustment. A short run average PD could be refered to as a PIT PD (I do, to be honest). However the capital model requires a “long run average” PD, either measured directly (unlikely for retail) or be estimation from a short run average PD (or PIT PD if you like). No matter the method, the result is a LRA PD.
The “through the cycle” term refers to the calculation of capital.
In reality this has more to do with ratings migration. A TTC rating system sets a constant level of capital during economic cycles (where other portfolio risks are fixed). A PIT rating system varies the amount of capital through a economic cycle, largely due the movement of exposures between ratings grades through time. For example, in a period of economic downturn it would be reasonable to expect that a proportion of exposures would shift into higher risk categories if up to date information is available (ie current behavioural credit scores, common in retail lending). This would increase the level of regulatory capital. This could have some undesirable effects on a macro economic level. The pillar 1 stress test is an important process for understanding the extent of this variability of capital for an individual portfolio and to form the basis of the pillar 2 capital plan (whch covers the way these capital obligations would be met by the business).
I hope that makes sence, it took me a while.
20 March, 2007 at 01:08
Riskopedia
After reading your comment:
The estimate is supposed to be TTC regardless (which leads me to another question, since its TTC at pool level, it shouldn’t change at all in the short run, unless proven the new TTC is significantly different from the current TTC, which you have to wait for the next cycle)
The PIT and TTC rating system is more referring to the change in distribution between pools (assuming TTC estimate per pool doesn’t change, for argument sake). TTC capital is not so sensitive (with a proper stress testing and forecasting) while PIT capital is a wild cat jumping up and down
Hoped this confirm my understanding. I need to edit the original post (the earlier bit, more on terminology). If you wouldn’t mind to use your comment, since it is quite summarised in an easy way to understand
6 April, 2007 at 18:19
aus
I think Bruce has nailed the key concept behind PIT/ TTC which is that this has more to do with the ability of the rating system to respond to changes in credit quality – i.e. portfolio migration. PIT and TTC represent different extremes on the spectrum. Correspondingly, the need to apply a scalar differs between a TTC and a PIT system. For a TTC system that scalar would change with differing economic conditions requiring constant monitoring (adjustment) whereas a PIT system is conditioned on current economic events and thus does not require an adjustment. The difficulty for most rating systems is that they are neither, rather they tend to be a ‘hybrid’ requiring an estimation of the portfolio migration contribution in order to estimate a lesser scalar than a completely TTC system. I don’t think that the requirement for a long run PD actually implies that a system has to be one or the other as the average from both systems will be the same through an economic cycle. However, given the implication for procyclicality for a PIT system, it is likely that a capital requirement will need to be held in Pillar 2 to compensate.
Regarding retail pools – to be honest i tend to think in terms of non-retail grades, but i’m sure the concept is the same. A behaviour score seems fairly PIT to me.
9 April, 2007 at 21:42
Riskopedia
Just a point around the scalar, it will eventually disappear when there are more data. It is more used to compensate the lack of historical data. Plus there are various issues when using a scalar to adjust to a long term average.
I am still more in favour to the idea that, rather than manipulating Pillar I estimate, such as 20% LGD floor, it should be applied in Pillar II instead. Otherwise, it will make it more diffcult to interpret and compare the output when comes to Pillar III